Showing posts with label Written English Aptitude Questions. Show all posts
Showing posts with label Written English Aptitude Questions. Show all posts

Oracle Financial Services Campus Recruitment - Aptitude Questions - Written English

Oracle Financial Services Campus Recruitment - 2012

Aptitude Questions

Written English (Basic): (4/4) 


This is the Basic level of the Written English assessment. It is composed of 25 questions divided into 4 sections used to evaluate your English language communication skills. You will have 25 minutes to complete this assessment. Please note that once you have completed a question you will NOT be able to return to it in order to make changes. no points will be deducted for wrong answers.


Assessment Breakdown

SectionTimeQuestions
Sentence Structure5 Minutes10
Grammatical Usage5 Minutes5
Written Expression7 Minutes5
Reading Comprehension8 Minutes5
Total25 Minutes25 Questions


Reading Comprehension Section
This is the Reading Comprehension section. It is designed to test your ability to understand the English language in its written form as well as draw logical conclusions based on the information presented in a general reading passage. This section has 1 reading passage and 5 questions pertaining to the passage that you must answer. You will have 8 minutes to complete this section.

Please carefully read the following: 

Polyphony
        Polyphony is a type of music which features two or more independent melodic voices. In the West, it is used to describe the music of the late Middle Ages and the Renaissance. Polyphony during this time was usually pitch-against-pitch, point-against-point, or sustained-pitch in one part with melismas (changing the pitch or note of a single syllable of the music’s text while it is being sung) in other parts. The concept of the music was similar to Margaret Bent’s description of dyadic counterpoint, with each part written against another part and all parts modified at the end if needed.
      In Europe polyphony came from the melismatic organum, or early harmonizing of the chant. The organum had been introduced centuries before, but during the twelfth century it was developed with the addition of a third or fourth voice to the then-homophonic chant. Composers continued experimenting during the thirteenth century with the polyphony, altering and hiding the sacred texts with secular tunes. Sacred texts might be obscured by love poetry sung above it as a trope, or the texts might be placed within a popular secular melody.
      The rise of polyphony was concurrent with the Western Schism of the Church. The seat of the antipopes in Avignon was a centre of secular music-making, which heavily influenced sacred polyphony. Polyphony itself was not offensive, but the merging of secular and sacred music which intruded even into the papal court was offensive. The resulting music for the church was far different, more jocular in the performance, than the previously solemn service performances. Even within the antipapal court at Avignon, the use and attitude towards polyphony varied during the period of its use. Harmony was seen as impious and lascivious, obscuring the listener from clearly hearing the words. The dissonant clashing of notes fueled the argument that polyphony was the devil”s music. Pope John XXII banished polyphony from the Liturgy in 1322. However, in 1364 the first polyphonic composition of the mass was created by the composer and priest Guillaume de Mauchaut. His Les Messe de Notre Dame was the first officially Church-sanctioned polyphony in sacred music.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Polyphony


Question Number 1
 According to the passage above, how was polyphony tied to the Western Schism of the Church?

a. The criticism of music in the Church, including polyphonic music, resulted in the Western Schism of the Church
b. Polyphony was tied to the Western Schism of the Church because the antipapal seat, Avignon, was also a center of secular music composition, and the two movements, religious and musical, met at Avignon
c. The Popes at Avignon faced criticism because of their attitudes regarding polyphony
d. Polyphony was tied to the Western Schism of the Church when the services were changed from solemn to the more jovial attitude created by the polyphonic music; the arguments over polyphonic music spurred on the Western Schism


Question Number 2
According to the passage above, what might the word trope (to change or alter) mean in this context?

a. Trope means an addition to pre-existing music
b. Trope refers to putting a love poem to music
c. Trope means to alter a song by adding so many layers of singers that the original meaning and words are no longer clear to the listener
d. Trope means to change the meaning of a song by removing from its setting and placing it in a completely different context


Question Number 3
According to the passage above, why did some medieval listeners criticise polyphony in the church?

a. Some medieval listeners criticized polyphony because they thought that it had been invented by the devil
b. Some medieval listeners criticized polyphony because it was a combination of secular and religious music which began in the secular world
c. Some medieval listeners criticized polyphony because it disrupted the previously solemn church services
d. Some medieval listeners criticized polyphony because of the merger of secular and sacred music, in which the words were not clearly heard and the notes clashed, were seen as being the devil’s music


Question Number 4
According to the passage above, if polyphony means a music with two or more independent voices, what type of music might monophony be? 

a. Monophony might be music with only one independent voice
b. Monophony might be music with three independent voices
c. Monophony is a melody with two or more simultaneous songs sung at once
d. Monophony is a melody with another accompanying melody


Question Number 5
According to the passage above, what does “dyadic counterpoint” refer to?

a. “Dyadic counterpoint” refers to a change in the pitch or note of a single syllable of the music’s text while it is being sung
b. “Dyadic counterpoint” is a term invented by Margaret Bent to describe Guillame de Mauchat’s composition in 1364 of the mass in polyphonic music
c. “Dyadic counterpoint” refers to pitch-against-pitch singing with melismas interwoven into the music
d. “Dyadic counterpoint” refers to music in which each part is written against another part and all the parts can be modified at the end
 


Oracle Placement Papers - Aptitude Questions - Written English



Oracle Financial Services Campus Recruitment - 2012
Aptitude Questions

Written English (3/4) 


This is the Basic level of the Written English assessment. It is composed of 25 questions divided into 4 sections used to evaluate your English language communication skills. You will have 25 minutes to complete this assessment. Please note that once you have completed a question you will NOT be able to return to it in order to make changes. no points will be deducted for wrong answers.



Assessment Breakdown

SectionTimeQuestions
Sentence Structure5 Minutes10
Grammatical Usage5 Minutes5
Written Expression7 Minutes5
Reading Comprehension8 Minutes5
Total25 Minutes25 Questions


Written Expression Section
It is designed to test your ability to logically and clearly organize ideas using the English language. For each question you will be given four relevant sentences that you must arrange into a paragraph that makes sense. You will have 7 minutes to complete the 5 questions in this section.

Example:
What is the correct order of the following sentences?

A) Social networking profiles are fascinating exercises on the construction of self-identity.
B) They have control over what profile photos they put up and what information they make available to others.
C) Through a social networking profile, users articulate how they see themselves through their online profiles.
D) In general, people use photos that reveal something about their personalities.

ACBD (Correct)
ABCD
CABD
CBDA



Question Number 1

What is the correct order of the following sentences?

A. The birds sat on the trees and sang so softly that children stopped their games to listen to them.
B. It was a lovely garden with soft green grass.
C. There were Peach trees that in the autumn bore rich fruit.
D. Here and there over the grass stood beautiful flowers like stars.

a. DBCA
b. BDCA
c. DCBA
d. ACBD


Question Number 2

What is the correct order of the following sentences?

A) It is estimated that junk mail, much of which is never read, accounts for 4 million tons of waste created each year.
B) The United Kingdom is trying to do something about the waste.
C) The government and the Direct Marketing Association are planning to increase the recycling rate of their junk mail from the current 13% to 55% by the year 2009.
D) Junk mail is leaving an ugly footprint on the environment.

a. ABCD
b. DABC
c. DBAC
d. ADCB


Question Number 3

What is the correct order of the following sentences?

A. Birds that depend upon the ocean for survival are among the most vulnerable birds on earth to climate change.
B. For over a century, the migratory birds have faced stresses, and now they are facing a new threat – climate change.
C. Hence it is the responsible of every individual on earth to contribute a little to reduce the climate change.
D. This climate change could dramatically alter their habitat and food supply, pushing many species towards extinction.

a. DABC
b. BCDA
c. BDAC
d. ACBD


Question Number 4

What is the correct order of the following sentences?

A. An employee dips into the bank to lengthen weekends and sprinkles them over the year.
B. A Vacation Deprivation study found that many employees failed to use their leave completely, adding many man-days to production.
C. A Vacation bank or leave bank is what an employer allots to a staffer every year.
D. Instead of letting leave lapse, an employee can transfer the days to the company's 'Vacation Time Bank' which can be used by any employee in a crisis.

a. DBCA
b. ABCD
c. BDCA
d. CBAD


Question Number 5

What is the correct order of the following sentences?

A. Its Headquarters is in New York and every year 24th October is celebrated as the U.N.O Day throughout the world.
B. At present almost all the countries of the world are its members.
C. After the Second World War, major nations of the world felt the need for a body to maintain peace in the world and the United Nations Organization came into existence.
D. The charter of the U.N.O was signed on June 26, 1945 and it came into effect on October 24,1945.

a. CBDA
b. DCBA
c. ABCD
d. BDCA

Oracle Placement - Aptitude Questions - Written English - Shredskerala

Oracle Financial Services Campus Recruitment - 2012

Aptitude Questions

Written English (2/4) 


This is the Basic level of the Written English assessment. It is composed of 25 questions divided into 4 sections used to evaluate your English language communication skills. You will have 25 minutes to complete this assessment. Please note that once you have completed a question you will NOT be able to return to it in order to make changes. no points will be deducted for wrong answers.



Assessment Breakdown

SectionTimeQuestions
Sentence Structure5 Minutes10
Grammatical Usage5 Minutes5
Written Expression7 Minutes5
Reading Comprehension8 Minutes5
Total25 Minutes25 Questions





Grammatical Usage Section

It is designed to test your ability to understand the proper usage of basic parts of speech and words used in the English language. You will be presented with 5 questions asking you to either identify a grammatical error or choose the word or phrase that correctly completes a statement. An example of this kind of question is given below. There would be a sentence given with a missing word (blank). You are required to select the right word that completes the sentence. You will have 5 minutes to complete the 5 questions in this section.

Example: 

The people __________ I met on holiday in France knew my boss.
A) where
B) those
C) whom (correct)
D) what



Question Number 1 

The security men __________ on the road in their uniforms soaked in blood.

a. has laid
b. was lying
c. were lying
d. have led


Question Number 2 

All men __________ equal rights.

a. has
b. have
c. is
d. are


Question Number 3 

He is a friend of __________ toleration.

a. religiously
b. religion
c. religious
d. reignite


Question Number 4

Ten kilometers __________ a long walk.

a. is
b. are
c. had
d. were


Question Number 5

Did Jim go to school __________ yesterday morning?

a. itself
b. herself
c. himself
d. themselves


Oracle Financial Services Campus Recruitment - Aptitude Questions - Written English - Sentence Structure - Shredskerala

Oracle Financial Services Campus Recruitment - 2012
Aptitude Questions

Written English (1/4) 

This is the Basic level of the Written English assessment. It is composed of 25 questions divided into 4 sections used to evaluate your English language communication skills. You will have 25 minutes to complete this assessment. Please note that once you have completed a question you will NOT be able to return to it in order to make changes. no points will be deducted for wrong answers. 


Assessment Breakdown

SectionTimeQuestions
Sentence Structure5 Minutes10
Grammatical Usage5 Minutes5
Written Expression7 Minutes5
Reading Comprehension8 Minutes5
Total25 Minutes25 Questions



Sentence Structure Section
This is the Sentence Structure section. It is designed to test your ability to use proper grammar and form logical ideas in the English language. You will be given a sentence with one or more blanks along with four potential answer options. Based on the context of the sentence, you must identify the best answer  option to fill in the blank. You will have 5 minutes to complete the 10 questions in this section.



Example:


Jen needed to ______ one more math class in order to ______ her secondary school degree.


A. took…finish

B. take…complete

C. taked…finished

D. takes…completes
 

Question Number 1 

After much __________, they decided to hang the picture above the mantelpiece. 

a. deliberation
b. caution
c. forethought
d. procrastination 


Question Number 2 

__________, the summer Olympics will take place in Beijing.

a. On 2008
b. In 2008
c. In 2008, the
d. Within 2008
e. Before 2008


Question Number 3

She opened the box to find a large __________ in the teacup of the china set she had imported.

a. chip
b. sliver
c. flake
d. unblemish


Question Number 4

Ever since Vincent’s sister canceled their dinner plans that he had really been looking forward to, he was feeling very __________.

a. surly
b. benevolent
c. indifferent
d. exuberant


Question Number 5 

The __________of the mink is very valuable.

a. musk
b. hide
c. carcass
d. pelt


Question Number 6 

Sandy had always wanted to work in __________ with a well-known producer.

a. problem
b. partnership
c. affiliation
d. collaboration

Question Number 7

The news of a new job offer was not only __________, but __________ as well.

a. promising…doubtful
b. exciting…relieving
c. mundane…concerning
d. upsetting…unforgettable


Question Number 8 

A cross between a horse and a donkey, mules are not capable of __________.

a. creating
b. procreation
c. production
d. stoutness

Question Number 9 

India has invested more than a billion USD __________ Afghanistan over the last eight years.

a. in the reconstruction of
b. for a reconstructing
c. to reconstruct into
d. in reconstructing to


Question Number 10 

The Greeks wrote plays in three: two __________ with a comedy in between to lighten the mood and prevent the audience from becoming depressed.

a. tragedies
b. misfortunes
c. adversities
d. fortunates


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